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聖書の動詞の用法について

He said to them, How is it then that David, speaking by the Spirit, calls him 'Lord'? イエスは言われた、「それではどうして、ダビデが御霊に感じてキリストを主と呼んでいるのか。 For he says, 'The Lord said to my Lord: Sit at my right hand until I put your enemies under your feet. ' すなわち『主はわが主に仰せになった、あなたの敵をあなたの足もとに置くときまでは、わたしの右に座していなさい』。 If then David calls him 'Lord,' how can he be his son?" このように、ダビデ自身がキリストを主と呼んでいるなら、キリストはどうしてダビデの子であろうか」。 以上はNew International Versionマタイ伝22章43-45節の記述ですが、43節の「calls him 'Lord'?」、44節の「For he says」、45節の「If then David calls him」の3動詞は何故過去形ではなく現在形が使われているのでしょうか。

  • 英語
  • 回答数2
  • ありがとう数4

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noname#122289
noname#122289
回答No.1

新約聖書の原典のギリシャ語から翻訳する際、元の文のニュアンスを残そうとした結果だと考えられます。 ギリシャ語では、意味上は過去のところに現在形を使う場合があります。英訳で現在形になっているのは、翻訳に際して元の現在形を直訳したためです。 ギリシャ語文法の用語で「歴史的現在(historical present)」と呼ばれる用法です。過去のことを表すのに動詞のアオリストや未完了過去を用いる代わりに現在形を使用して、描写を生き生きとした劇的なものにする効果があるとされています。

fanzhao
質問者

お礼

nakanonanako様、Kogomi様 分かりやすい、明解な説明有り難うございました。納得いたしました。 また宜しくお願い致します。

その他の回答 (1)

  • kogomi
  • ベストアンサー率38% (31/80)
回答No.2

英語の直接的な答えになっていないのですが、ギリシャ語が現在形になっているからです。なので、言語から忠実に訳されるなら現在形になります。でも過去形のほうが正しいのではないのか?と思われるかも知れませんが、聖書は訳者の私的解釈によって訳されていないからです。

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